Q & A Question: Would Freud say that his theory of human nature is objective, or would he say that it varies in degrees of influence, according to the particular society in question?

I would say that it does depend on degrees;  for example some cultures are much more open, or embrace human sexuality, more so than others.  It only seems natural that one such culture would not only embrace, but exemplify Freud's theories in a more complete and clear manner.

Conversely, a society in which sexuality was not open or treated the same, could see people affected less so, and exemplifying less so (Freud's theory) than others.

However:  Could a society that represses and condemns human sexuality perhaps give rise to more Freudian undertones?  I think this would also be a very legitimate claim as well.  Thoughts?